Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 05:53
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do you think Islam oppresses women when Christianity clearly does it more?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What are some reasons why men may not want to date a woman who can pay her own bills?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?